The ACT English section tests your ability to revise and edit passages for grammar, style, and organization. The best way to prepare is to work through realistic passage-based questions just like the ones you will see on test day. This free ACT English practice test includes 15 questions across three passages, covering every question category in the ACT English section.
Work through each passage carefully, answer the questions, then check the complete answer key with explanations below. Time yourself if you want a realistic experience: aim for about 36 seconds per question.
ACT English Section: Quick Format Overview
Before diving into the practice test, here is a snapshot of what the ACT English section looks like. Knowing the structure helps you pace yourself and prioritize your study time. For a deeper breakdown of every question type, see our ACT English question types and examples guide.
There is no penalty for wrong answers on the ACT, so never leave a question blank. If you are running low on time, guess on every remaining question before time is called.
ACT English Practice Test: 15 Passage-Based Questions
Each passage below contains numbered and underlined portions. The questions ask you to choose the best alternative. If the original is already the best version, select "NO CHANGE." Odd-numbered questions use answer choices A through D; even-numbered questions use F through J, matching the real ACT format.
Passage 1: The Rise of Urban Beekeeping
In recent years, urban beekeeping has transformed from an unusual hobby into a widespread movement. Cities across the United States [1] has embraced the practice, with rooftop hives appearing atop restaurants, hotels, and apartment buildings. Advocates argue that urban bees do more than produce honey[2] they also pollinate community gardens, parks, and roadside flower beds.
[3] Furthermore, the path to establishing an urban hive is not always smooth. Many cities still maintain outdated ordinances that prohibit or heavily restrict beekeeping within city limits. Aspiring beekeepers must navigate a patchwork of local regulations, [4] which can be confusing, complicated, and hard to understand. Some municipalities require registration, inspections, and minimum distances from neighboring property lines.
Despite these challenges, the movement continues to grow. [5] Organizations like local beekeeping associations offer mentorship programs for beginners, and many cities have updated their codes to welcome responsible beekeeping. For those willing to put in the effort, the rewards extend far beyond a jar of golden honey.
1. Which choice is the best alternative for the underlined portion [1]?
A. NO CHANGE
B. have embraced
C. was embracing
D. embracing
2. Which choice is the best alternative for the underlined portion [2]?
F. NO CHANGE
G. honey, they
H. honey; they
J. honey. And they
3. Which transition word or phrase best fits at the beginning of the second paragraph [3]?
A. NO CHANGE
B. However,
C. In other words,
D. As a result,
4. Which choice is the most concise replacement for the underlined portion [4]?
F. NO CHANGE
G. which can be confusing and complicated to understand.
H. which can be difficult to navigate.
J. which can be confusing and hard.
5. The writer wants to add a sentence at point [5] that gives a specific example of urban beekeeping's growth. Which choice best accomplishes this goal?
A. Chicago, for instance, legalized residential beekeeping in 2015 and now hosts over 1,000 registered hives.
B. Bees are fascinating creatures that have been kept by humans for thousands of years.
C. Some people are afraid of bees, but most urban beekeepers report very few stinging incidents.
D. Honey comes in many varieties, depending on which flowers the bees visit most frequently.
Passage 2: The Lost Art of Letter Writing
My grandmother kept every letter she ever received. They filled shoeboxes stacked in her closet, [6] each envelope: yellowed and fragile with age. When she passed away last spring, I spent an afternoon reading through them, discovering a window into decades of family history.
The letters spanned nearly fifty years. [7] In it, I found my grandfather's wartime correspondence, my mother's first letters home from college, and birthday cards from relatives I had never met. Each piece of mail carried not just words but [8] personality. The handwriting, the choice of stationery, even the occasional coffee stain told a story that no email could replicate.
Today, most of us communicate through texts and social media posts that vanish within moments of being read. [9] We tend to type quickly and casually, giving little thought to craft or permanence. I do not mean to suggest that digital communication is without value. Yet something important is lost when every message is [10] disposable, and it can be forgotten, rather than being carefully composed and lovingly preserved.
6. Which choice is the best alternative for the underlined portion [6]?
F. NO CHANGE
G. each envelope, yellowed
H. each envelope; yellowed
J. each envelope yellowed
7. Which choice is the best alternative for the underlined portion [7]?
A. NO CHANGE
B. In them,
C. In which,
D. In the closet,
8. The writer is considering replacing the word "personality" [8] with the word "information." Should the writer make this change?
F. Yes, because "information" is more precise and academic.
G. Yes, because the passage is primarily about the facts contained in the letters.
H. No, because "personality" better conveys the unique, human quality of handwritten mail.
J. No, because the paragraph has not yet discussed what information the letters contained.
9. If the writer were to delete the underlined sentence [9], the paragraph would primarily lose:
A. a contrast between past and present communication methods.
B. a specific example of a social media platform that replaced letter writing.
C. a detail that illustrates the casual, impermanent nature of modern communication.
D. an explanation of why younger generations prefer texting over writing letters.
10. Which choice is the best alternative for the underlined portion [10]?
F. NO CHANGE
G. disposable and forgettable rather than carefully composed and preserved.
H. disposable, rather than being composed.
J. able to be disposed of and forgotten about rather than composed and preserved.
Passage 3: Community Theater
The Millbrook Community [11] Players' have been performing at the converted barn on Elm Street for over thirty years. Every autumn, residents of all ages gather there to audition, build sets, and put on productions ranging from Shakespeare to modern comedies.
[12] Rehearsals beginning in September. For eight weeks, the cast and crew meet three evenings a week, transforming the drafty barn into whatever world the script demands. Last year's production of A Midsummer Night's Dream featured a forest made entirely of recycled cardboard, with fairy lights strung from the rafters. The dedication of the volunteers is [13] remarkable and extremely noteworthy.
What makes community theater special is not the quality of the performances, [14] though they are often surprisingly good and quite impressive to watch, but the bonds it creates. Neighbors who might never otherwise interact find themselves painting scenery together or running lines over coffee. [15] For a town that has seen many of its gathering places close over the years, the Millbrook Players provide something irreplaceable: a reason to come together.
11. Which choice is the best alternative for the underlined portion [11]?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Players have
C. Player's have
D. Players, have
12. Which choice is the best alternative for the underlined portion [12]?
F. NO CHANGE
G. Rehearsals begin in September.
H. Rehearsals, beginning in September.
J. Beginning in September, rehearsals.
13. Which choice is the most effective and concise replacement for the underlined portion [13]?
A. NO CHANGE
B. remarkable, noteworthy, and impressive.
C. remarkable.
D. remarkable and always noteworthy.
14. Which choice is the most concise version of the underlined portion [14] that preserves the original meaning?
F. NO CHANGE
G. though they are often surprisingly good,
H. though good,
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
15. Which choice most effectively concludes the essay by reinforcing its central theme?
A. NO CHANGE
B. The Players are always looking for new members, and auditions are open to everyone regardless of experience.
C. Community theater exists in towns and cities across the country, with thousands of groups performing each year.
D. The barn on Elm Street could use some repairs, but the Players make do with what they have.
Answer Key With Explanations
Check your answers below. Read every explanation, even for questions you got right, because each one highlights a grammar rule or strategy you will see again on test day.
Passage 1 Explanations
1. (B) have embraced. The subject is "Cities," which is plural. A plural subject requires a plural verb: "Cities have embraced." The singular "has" does not agree with the plural subject. This is a classic subject-verb agreement question. Always identify the true subject of the sentence before choosing the verb form.
2. (H) honey; they. The original creates a comma splice (two independent clauses joined without proper punctuation). "Advocates argue that urban bees do more than produce honey" and "they also pollinate..." are both complete sentences. A semicolon correctly joins them. Choice G uses only a comma, which is still a splice. Choice J creates an awkward fragment with "And."
3. (B) However. The first paragraph discusses the benefits of urban beekeeping. The second paragraph shifts to the obstacles. You need a contrast transition. "Furthermore" (A) signals addition, not contrast. "In other words" (C) signals restatement. "As a result" (D) signals cause and effect. Only "However" signals the shift from positive to negative.
4. (H) which can be difficult to navigate. The original is redundant: "confusing," "complicated," and "hard to understand" all mean essentially the same thing. On the ACT, when you see multiple words saying the same thing, the most concise option that preserves the meaning is almost always correct. Choice H says it cleanly in fewer words.
5. (A) Chicago legalized residential beekeeping... The question asks for a specific example of the movement's growth. Only choice A provides a concrete city, a date, and a measurable statistic. The other choices discuss unrelated topics (bee history, stinging fears, honey varieties) that do not support the paragraph's claim about growth.
Passage 2 Explanations
6. (G) each envelope, yellowed. The phrase "yellowed and fragile with age" is an appositive that describes "each envelope." Appositives are set off by commas. A colon (F) would incorrectly signal that a list or explanation follows. A semicolon (H) separates independent clauses, which this is not. Removing the comma entirely (J) creates a confusing run-on.
7. (B) In them. The antecedent is "letters" (plural), so the pronoun must also be plural. "It" (A) is singular and does not agree with "letters." This is a pronoun-antecedent agreement question. "In which" (C) would need a preceding noun, and "In the closet" (D) changes the meaning entirely.
8. (H) No, because "personality" better conveys the unique, human quality of handwritten mail. The passage's central argument is that letters carry something personal and irreplaceable. "Personality" captures that warmth and individuality. "Information" is too clinical and neutral, stripping the emotional weight from the sentence. This is a word choice and tone question.
9. (C) A detail that illustrates the casual, impermanent nature of modern communication. The sentence "We tend to type quickly and casually, giving little thought to craft or permanence" provides a specific detail about how people communicate today. It is not a contrast on its own (A), it names no specific platform (B), and it does not explain generational preferences (D). Deleting it removes a concrete illustration of the problem.
10. (G) disposable and forgettable rather than carefully composed and preserved. The original is wordy and awkward. Choice G achieves clean parallel structure ("disposable and forgettable" balanced against "composed and preserved") while trimming unnecessary words. Choice H cuts too much meaning. Choice J replaces concise adjectives with clunky passive phrases ("able to be disposed of").
Passage 3 Explanations
11. (B) Players have. "Players" is a simple plural noun, not a possessive. No apostrophe is needed. "Players'" (A) incorrectly signals possession. "Player's" (C) is singular possessive. A comma (D) incorrectly separates the subject from its verb. On the ACT, always ask whether a noun is possessive or just plural before adding an apostrophe.
12. (G) Rehearsals begin in September. The original is a sentence fragment. "Rehearsals beginning in September" has no main verb, only a participial phrase. Changing "beginning" to "begin" creates a complete sentence with a proper subject and verb. Choice H and J remain fragments.
13. (C) remarkable. "Remarkable" and "noteworthy" mean the same thing. Adding "extremely" only compounds the redundancy. Choice B makes it worse by piling on a third synonym. Choice D is still redundant. The most concise and effective option is simply "remarkable," which is strong enough on its own.
14. (G) though they are often surprisingly good. The original adds "and quite impressive to watch," which is redundant with "surprisingly good." The parenthetical needs to stay because it sets up the contrast ("not the quality... but the bonds"), so deleting it entirely (J) breaks the sentence logic. Choice H removes the key word "surprisingly," which weakens the author's point. Choice G keeps the meaning intact with no wasted words.
15. (A) NO CHANGE. The essay's central theme is that community theater brings people together. The existing ending, "a reason to come together," directly echoes that theme. Choice B shifts to recruitment. Choice C broadens to a national scope that dilutes the personal, local focus. Choice D introduces a new topic (building repairs) that has nothing to do with community bonds.
How to Score Your ACT English Practice Test
On the real ACT, your raw score (number correct out of 75) is converted to a scaled score from 1 to 36. This mini practice test has 15 questions, so use this rough guide to estimate where you stand:
For a full-length ACT English practice experience with instant scoring, try a free ACT English quiz on Larry Learns. You will get detailed explanations for every question and can track your progress over time.
5 Strategies to Raise Your ACT English Score
Knowing the grammar rules is only half the battle. These five strategies help you apply that knowledge under time pressure and avoid common traps.
1. When in doubt, pick the shortest answer. About 25% of ACT English questions test conciseness. If two choices are grammatically correct but one is shorter, the shorter version is almost always the answer. The ACT rewards clear, direct writing.
2. Read the full sentence before answering. Many students look only at the underlined portion and miss context clues. The words before and after the underline often determine the correct answer, especially for transition and agreement questions.
3. Identify the question type first. Is the question testing grammar (commas, verbs, pronouns), organization (transitions, sentence placement), or style (word choice, redundancy)? Knowing the category helps you apply the right strategy. Our ACT English question types guide breaks down each category with examples.
4. Use the "delete" test for redundancy. If you can remove an underlined phrase and the sentence still makes sense, the concise option is probably correct. The ACT rarely rewards extra words.
5. Pace yourself at 36 seconds per question. That gives you 9 minutes per passage. If a question stumps you for more than a minute, pick your best guess, mark it, and move on. Every question is worth the same amount, so do not spend three minutes on a hard question when an easy one is waiting.
For a structured study plan that covers all four ACT sections, check out our 4-week ACT study schedule. And if you want the best ACT prep books to supplement your practice, we reviewed the top options for 2026.
Frequently Asked Questions About ACT English Practice Tests
How many questions are on the ACT English section?
The ACT English section contains 75 questions spread across five passages. You have 45 minutes to complete the section, which works out to about 36 seconds per question or 9 minutes per passage.
What grammar rules are tested most often on the ACT English section?
The most frequently tested rules are comma usage (especially restrictive vs. nonrestrictive clauses), subject-verb agreement, pronoun-antecedent agreement, sentence fragments, run-on sentences, and redundancy. Together, these topics account for the majority of Conventions of Standard English questions.
Is there a penalty for guessing on the ACT?
No. Unlike the old SAT, the ACT has never penalized wrong answers. Your raw score is simply the number of correct answers. You should answer every single question, even if you have to guess. Leaving a question blank guarantees zero points, while guessing gives you at least a 25% chance.
How can I improve my ACT English score quickly?
The fastest improvements come from learning the top five grammar rules (commas, subject-verb agreement, redundancy, fragments, and run-ons) and then practicing with timed passages. Most students can gain 3-5 points by mastering just these core rules and improving their pacing. Start with free ACT English practice on Larry Learns to pinpoint your weak areas.
What is a good ACT English score?
The national average for ACT English is around 19-20. A score of 25 or above is considered above average, and 30+ puts you in roughly the top 10% of test takers. Competitive colleges typically look for composite scores of 30-34, which means aiming for at least 28-30 on each section. Check out our ACT overview page for score benchmarks by section.
Should I read the whole passage first or answer questions as I go?
Most top scorers read the passage in chunks, answering questions as they encounter underlined portions. Read the paragraph containing the underlined portion fully, answer the related questions, then move to the next paragraph. This balances reading comprehension with efficient time use. Save "whole passage" questions (like sentence placement or essay conclusion) for after you have read everything.
