Last Updated: April 1, 2026
The best way to prepare for ACT English is to practice with questions that match the real test and then study the explanation for every answer, not just the ones you got wrong. This page gives you 25 ACT English questions organized by the skills they test, with detailed explanations that teach the underlying rule behind each correct answer.
The questions are grouped into the three categories the ACT uses to report your score: Conventions of Standard English, Production of Writing, and Knowledge of Language. Work through them all for a full review, or jump to the category where you need the most practice. For a broader overview of the section format, see our ACT English section guide.
Conventions of Standard English Questions
This is the largest category on the ACT English section, making up over half of all questions. It covers punctuation, grammar, and sentence structure. If you master these rules, you can answer most of these questions in under 20 seconds each.
Comma Rules
Tip: The ACT tests four main comma rules. Know when commas are required (after introductory elements, around nonessential clauses, before FANBOYS in compound sentences) and when they are forbidden (between subject and verb, between verb and object).
Question 1. After months of careful planning, the architecture firm submitted its proposal to the city council.
A. NO CHANGE
B. planning the architecture firm,
C. planning the architecture firm
D. planning; the architecture firm
Answer: A. The comma after "planning" correctly separates the introductory prepositional phrase from the main clause. Removing the comma (B, C) or replacing it with a semicolon (D) would be incorrect because semicolons require independent clauses on both sides.
Question 2. The documentary, which was filmed over three years in remote locations was nominated for several awards.
A. NO CHANGE
B. locations, was nominated
C. locations; was nominated
D. locations. Was nominated
Answer: B. The clause "which was filmed over three years in remote locations" is nonessential. Nonessential clauses must have commas on both sides. A comma already appears before "which," so a matching comma is needed after "locations."
Question 3. The senator from Texas, and the governor of Florida held a joint press conference on education reform.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Texas and the governor of Florida,
C. Texas and the governor of Florida
D. Texas, and the governor of Florida,
Answer: C. This is a compound subject ("the senator" and "the governor"), not a compound sentence. A comma before "and" is only correct when "and" joins two independent clauses (each with its own subject and verb). Here, the two subjects share the verb "held," so no comma is needed.
Subject-Verb Agreement
Tip: The ACT often separates the subject from the verb with prepositional phrases, relative clauses, or appositives. Cross out the words between the subject and verb to find the correct agreement.
Question 4. The results of the nationwide survey on reading habits suggests that more adults are choosing audiobooks over print.
F. NO CHANGE
G. suggest
H. is suggesting
J. has suggested
Answer: G. The subject is "results" (plural), not "survey" or "habits." The prepositional phrases "of the nationwide survey on reading habits" create distance between the subject and verb. A plural subject requires a plural verb: "suggest."
Question 5. Neither the captain nor the other players on the team was willing to accept the referee's decision without protest.
A. NO CHANGE
B. were willing
C. is willing
D. has been willing
Answer: B. With "neither...nor," the verb agrees with the subject closest to it. "Players" (plural) is closest, so the verb should be plural: "were willing." The phrase "on the team" is a prepositional phrase that does not change the agreement.
Pronoun Agreement and Case
Tip: Make sure pronouns match their antecedents in number. Also check pronoun case: subjects use "who/I/he/she/they," and objects use "whom/me/him/her/them."
Question 6. Each of the students must submit their final project by the end of the semester if they want to receive a passing grade.
F. NO CHANGE
G. his or her final project
H. a final project
J. its final project
Answer: G. "Each" is singular. In formal writing tested on the ACT, a singular antecedent requires a singular pronoun. "Their" is plural and does not agree with "each." Choice G provides the correct singular agreement. Choice H avoids the pronoun entirely but changes the meaning slightly. Choice J uses "its," which refers to things, not people.
Question 7. The award was given to Maria and I for our contributions to the community garden project.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Maria and me
C. Maria and myself
D. I and Maria
Answer: B. "Maria and I" follows the preposition "to," which requires an object pronoun. Remove "Maria and" to test it: "The award was given to I" is clearly wrong; "The award was given to me" is correct. "Myself" (C) is only correct when the subject and object are the same person ("I hurt myself").
Verb Tense
Tip: Check what tense the surrounding sentences use. The ACT expects consistency unless there is a clear reason for a shift (like a flashback).
Question 8. The researchers collected data from 500 participants, analyze the results, and published their findings in a peer-reviewed journal.
F. NO CHANGE
G. analyzed
H. analyzing
J. will analyze
Answer: G. The sentence uses a parallel series: "collected...analyze...published." The verbs must all be in the same tense. "Collected" and "published" are past tense, so the middle verb must also be past tense: "analyzed."
Sentence Structure
Tip: Watch for fragments (no independent clause), run-ons (two independent clauses with no punctuation), and comma splices (two independent clauses joined by only a comma).
Question 9. The restaurant received rave reviews from food critics, it quickly became the most popular dining spot in the neighborhood.
A. NO CHANGE
B. critics it
C. critics, and it
D. critics, but it
Answer: C. The original is a comma splice: two independent clauses joined by only a comma. Choice B creates a run-on (no punctuation at all). Choice C fixes it by adding the coordinating conjunction "and" after the comma, which logically connects two related ideas. Choice D uses "but," which implies contrast, but the second clause is a positive consequence, not a contrast.
Question 10. Because the museum had recently undergone a major renovation that added three new galleries and a rooftop terrace.
F. NO CHANGE
G. renovation, that added
H. renovation. That added
J. renovation, adding
Answer: J. The original is a fragment: "Because" makes the entire sentence a dependent clause with no independent clause to complete it. Choice J replaces "that added" with the participial phrase "adding," which removes the subordinate connector and turns the structure into a viable sentence. Choices G and H still leave "Because" creating a dependent clause with no resolution.
Apostrophes and Possessives
Question 11. The company announced that it's new headquarters would be located in downtown Austin, bringing hundreds of jobs to the area.
A. NO CHANGE
B. its
C. its'
D. their
Answer: B. "It's" is a contraction of "it is." The sentence needs the possessive pronoun "its" (no apostrophe). This is one of the most commonly tested distinctions on ACT English. Choice C ("its'") is not a real English word. Choice D ("their") does not agree with the singular "company."
Production of Writing Questions
These questions ask you to think about the passage as a whole: organization, purpose, adding or deleting sentences, introductions, conclusions, and transitions. They typically take longer than grammar questions because you need to understand the context around the underlined portion.
Transitions
Tip: Read the sentence before and after the transition to determine the logical relationship. Is the second sentence adding to, contrasting with, or resulting from the first?
Question 12. The city invested heavily in renewable energy infrastructure. However, electricity costs decreased by 15% over the following year.
F. NO CHANGE
G. Therefore,
H. Meanwhile,
J. As a result,
Answer: J. The decrease in electricity costs is a logical result of investing in renewable energy. "However" (F) implies contrast, but there is no contradiction here. "Therefore" (G) is close but slightly more formal than needed and less natural in this context. "Meanwhile" (H) implies simultaneous events without causation. "As a result" (J) clearly expresses the cause-and-effect relationship.
Question 13. The hiking trail offered breathtaking views of the valley. On the other hand, the steep incline and loose gravel made the path dangerous for inexperienced hikers.
A. NO CHANGE
B. In addition,
C. For example,
D. Similarly,
Answer: A. The first sentence describes a positive (views), and the second describes a negative (danger). "On the other hand" correctly signals this contrast. "In addition" (B) would suggest the second sentence adds to the positive, which it does not. "For example" (C) would mean the danger illustrates the views, which makes no sense. "Similarly" (D) implies both sentences make the same point.
Adding and Deleting Sentences
Tip: For "should the writer add/delete this sentence" questions, ask: does the sentence support the main point of the paragraph? Does it provide relevant detail or does it go off topic?
Question 14. [1] The local library recently expanded its children's section. [2] The new wing features interactive reading stations and a small theater for storytelling events. [3] The library's parking lot was also repaved last summer. [4] Families have responded enthusiastically, with children's program attendance rising by 40%.
For the sake of the paragraph's focus, the writer is considering deleting Sentence 3. Should the writer make this deletion?
F. Yes, because it introduces a detail unrelated to the children's section expansion.
G. Yes, because it contradicts the idea that the library is focused on children.
H. No, because it provides important context about other library improvements.
J. No, because it explains why attendance increased.
Answer: F. The paragraph is about the children's section expansion and its positive impact. The parking lot repaving, while a real library improvement, has nothing to do with the children's section and breaks the paragraph's focus. It does not contradict anything (G), and it does not explain the attendance increase (J).
Sentence Placement and Organization
Question 15. [1] The orchestra began rehearsals in September. [2] By November, the musicians had mastered the most challenging passages. [3] Their conductor had selected an ambitious program of works by Mahler and Shostakovich. [4] The winter concert in December was a triumph.
For the sake of logic and coherence, Sentence 3 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Sentence 1.
C. after Sentence 1.
D. after Sentence 4.
Answer: C. The logical sequence is: the conductor selects the program, rehearsals begin, musicians master the passages, and the concert succeeds. Sentence 3 (selecting the program) logically comes right after Sentence 1 (rehearsals starting) because it explains what they were rehearsing. Placing it before Sentence 1 (B) would also work chronologically but disrupts the narrative flow of starting with the action.
Introductions and Conclusions
Question 16. Which of the following sentences would most effectively introduce this paragraph?
[?] Studies show that students who eat a nutritious breakfast score an average of 17% higher on morning exams. Schools with free breakfast programs report fewer disciplinary issues in first-period classes. Nutritionists point to stable blood sugar as the key factor linking diet to academic performance.
F. Breakfast has been called the most important meal of the day, and recent research supports that claim for students in particular.
G. The cafeteria at Lincoln High School serves pancakes, eggs, and fresh fruit every morning.
H. Many students skip breakfast because they would rather sleep an extra fifteen minutes.
J. Nutrition is a complex field that scientists have studied for centuries.
Answer: F. The paragraph presents evidence that breakfast improves academic performance. Choice F introduces this topic directly and signals that research will follow. Choice G is too specific (one school). Choice H discusses why students skip breakfast, which is tangential. Choice J is too broad and does not connect to the paragraph's focus on breakfast and student performance.
Writer's Purpose
Question 17. Suppose the writer had intended to write a brief essay comparing different methods of urban transportation. Would this essay fulfill that purpose?
[The essay describes the history and current operations of the San Francisco cable car system.]
A. Yes, because cable cars are a form of urban transportation.
B. Yes, because the essay mentions how cable cars compare to buses.
C. No, because the essay focuses on one transportation system rather than comparing multiple methods.
D. No, because cable cars are no longer used in most cities.
Answer: C. The essay is about the cable car system specifically, not a comparison of multiple transportation methods. Even though cable cars are urban transportation (A), the essay does not compare them to other methods. The key word in the prompt is "comparing," and a single-subject essay does not fulfill a comparison purpose.
Knowledge of Language Questions
These questions focus on word choice, style, tone, and conciseness. The ACT rewards clear, direct writing and penalizes redundancy and wordiness.
Conciseness and Redundancy
Tip: When two or more answer choices convey the same meaning, choose the shortest one. The ACT almost always prefers concise writing.
Question 18. The autobiography tells the story of her life and personal experiences growing up in rural Appalachia.
F. NO CHANGE
G. tells the story of her life growing up
H. tells the story of her experiences growing up
J. tells of her growing up
Answer: J. An autobiography is, by definition, the story of someone's life. "The story of her life and personal experiences" is triply redundant. Choice J eliminates all the redundancy while preserving the meaning: the autobiography covers her upbringing in rural Appalachia.
Question 19. The two candidates debated each other about their opposing and different views on healthcare policy.
A. NO CHANGE
B. their opposing views
C. their different and opposing views
D. their views, which were opposing and different from one another,
Answer: B. "Opposing" and "different" mean essentially the same thing in this context. Using both is redundant. Choice B keeps "opposing" (the more specific word for a debate context) and drops the redundancy. Choice D makes the wordiness even worse.
Word Choice and Tone
Tip: Match the tone of the passage. If the passage is formal and academic, avoid casual language. If it is conversational, avoid overly stiff phrasing.
Question 20. [Passage is a formal analysis of Renaissance architecture.] The cathedral's dome was super impressive and really blew people away when it was completed in 1436.
F. NO CHANGE
G. was an engineering marvel that astonished contemporaries
H. was really cool and shocked everyone
J. impressed a lot of the people who saw it
Answer: G. The passage is a formal analysis, so casual language like "super impressive" (F), "really cool" (H), and the vague "a lot of the people" (J) do not match the tone. Choice G uses precise, formal language ("engineering marvel," "astonished contemporaries") appropriate for academic writing about architecture.
Question 21. [Passage is a personal narrative about a summer job.] The meticulous organizational protocols implemented by management necessitated a paradigm shift in my approach to daily tasks.
A. NO CHANGE
B. The new rules from my boss changed how I did my job every day.
C. The organizational changes required me to adjust my daily routine.
D. My manager's new system meant I had to rethink how I worked each day.
Answer: D. The passage is a personal narrative, so the overly formal language in Choice A ("meticulous organizational protocols," "paradigm shift") is jarringly out of place. Choice B is too casual. Choice C is adequate but bland. Choice D strikes the right balance: conversational enough for a personal essay but specific enough to convey meaning clearly.
Precision
Question 22. The scientist made an important thing happen when she figured out a way to make the process work better.
F. NO CHANGE
G. achieved a breakthrough by developing a technique to improve the process.
H. did something big by improving the way things were done.
J. really helped out by making the process better than before.
Answer: G. The original uses vague language ("important thing," "figured out a way," "work better"). The ACT rewards precise, specific writing. Choice G replaces every vague phrase with a concrete one: "achieved a breakthrough," "developing a technique," "improve the process."
Eliminating Wordiness
Question 23. Due to the fact that the bridge was closed for repairs, commuters had to take an alternate route to work.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Because the bridge was closed for repairs,
C. Owing to the closure of the bridge, which was being repaired,
D. Since the bridge, closed for repairs, was unavailable,
Answer: B. "Due to the fact that" is a wordy way of saying "because." Choice B is the most concise and direct. Choice C adds unnecessary wordiness ("owing to the closure of"). Choice D is awkward and adds the unnecessary "was unavailable" when "closed" already implies it.
Mixed Practice Questions
These final questions mix categories, just like the real test. See if you can identify what skill each question tests before looking at the answer.
Question 24. The team of engineers who designed the bridge were recognized at the annual conference for they're innovative use of sustainable materials.
F. NO CHANGE
G. were recognized at the annual conference for their
H. was recognized at the annual conference for their
J. was recognized at the annual conference for they're
Answer: G. Two issues here. First, "they're" means "they are" and should be the possessive "their." That eliminates F and J. Second, the subject is "team" (singular), but the verb agreement with collective nouns followed by "who" can go either way. In this case, "engineers who designed" is the relative clause, and "were recognized" agrees with the team acting as a group of individuals. Choice G correctly uses "their" and maintains agreement.
Question 25. [1] The community garden began as a small plot behind the library. [2] Volunteers cleared the weeds and built raised beds from donated lumber. [3] Tomatoes, peppers, and herbs were among the first crops planted. [4] Within two years, the garden had expanded to fill the entire vacant lot, it now supplies fresh produce to three local food banks every week.
A. NO CHANGE
B. lot and it now supplies
C. lot. It now supplies
D. lot; and it now supplies
Answer: C. The original is a comma splice: "the garden had expanded to fill the entire vacant lot" and "it now supplies fresh produce" are both independent clauses joined by only a comma. Choice B lacks the necessary comma before "and" when joining two independent clauses. Choice C creates two clear sentences, which is the cleanest fix. Choice D incorrectly pairs a semicolon with "and" (use one or the other, not both).
How to Use These Questions for Maximum Improvement
Practicing questions only helps if you study the explanations and track your patterns. Here is a simple process:
- Work through all 25 questions. Write down your answers before checking the explanations.
- Score yourself. Count how many you got right in each category (Conventions, Production of Writing, Knowledge of Language).
- Review every question. Even for questions you got right, read the explanation to make sure you got it right for the right reason.
- Identify your weakest category. If you missed 4 comma questions but aced transitions, focus your study time on comma rules.
- Practice more in your weak areas. Our ACT English practice test and prep guide give you additional targeted practice.
When you are ready to test your skills under timed conditions, try a timed ACT English quiz on Larry Learns. It tracks your accuracy by question type so you can see exactly where to focus.
Frequently Asked Questions About ACT English Questions
What types of questions are on the ACT English section?
ACT English questions fall into three categories: Conventions of Standard English (grammar, punctuation, sentence structure), Production of Writing (organization, transitions, purpose), and Knowledge of Language (conciseness, word choice, tone). Conventions questions make up over half the section. See our ACT English section guide for a complete breakdown.
How many questions are on the ACT English section?
There are 75 multiple-choice questions across five passages, with 15 questions per passage. You have 45 minutes to complete the section, which works out to about 36 seconds per question.
What grammar rules are tested most often on ACT English?
The most frequently tested rules are comma usage (especially nonessential clauses and compound sentences), subject-verb agreement, pronoun agreement, verb tense consistency, and sentence structure (fragments and run-ons). Conciseness and transitions are also heavily tested.
How do I answer ACT English questions faster?
Speed comes from pattern recognition. Once you learn the core grammar rules, most Conventions questions take 15 to 20 seconds. Read each passage straight through, answering questions as you reach them. For conciseness questions, default to the shortest answer that preserves the meaning. For detailed pacing strategies, see our ACT English time management guide.
Is "NO CHANGE" ever the right answer?
Yes. "NO CHANGE" is the correct answer roughly 25% of the time. Do not avoid it because it feels like a trick, and do not choose it just because you are unsure. Evaluate it the same way you evaluate the other choices.
Should I study grammar rules or just do practice questions?
Both. Start by learning the rules so you understand what the questions are testing, then reinforce them with practice questions. Doing questions without knowing the rules leads to guessing. Knowing the rules without practicing leads to slow test-day performance. Our ACT English prep guide pairs rule explanations with practice examples.
