The best way to learn ACT English grammar rules is to see them in action. This collection of 20 ACT English practice questions comes with in-depth explanations that teach you the rule behind every answer, not just which bubble to fill in. By the time you finish, you will understand the patterns the ACT uses to test grammar, rhetoric, and style well enough to recognize them instantly on test day.
The questions are organized by the three official ACT English categories: Conventions of Standard English, Production of Writing, and Knowledge of Language. Each explanation breaks down the underlying rule so you can apply it to any similar question you encounter. For a quick-fire drill format, try our 25-question ACT English skill bank. For a full timed test experience, take our free ACT English practice test.
Conventions of Standard English (Questions 1-10)
Conventions of Standard English questions make up over half of the ACT English section. They test punctuation, grammar, and sentence structure. Each question below targets a high-frequency rule with an explanation you can apply across dozens of similar problems.
Punctuation
1. The city council approved the new park design [1] last Tuesday, the construction crew is expected to break ground before the end of the month.
A. NO CHANGE
B. last Tuesday; the construction crew
C. last Tuesday the construction crew
D. last Tuesday, and, the construction crew
Answer: B. This is a comma splice: two independent clauses joined by only a comma. You have three ways to fix a comma splice on the ACT: (1) replace the comma with a semicolon, (2) replace the comma with a period, or (3) add a coordinating conjunction (for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so) after the comma. Choice B uses a semicolon, which correctly separates two related independent clauses. Choice D adds "and" but incorrectly places a comma after it.
2. Dr. Ramirez, [2] who has published over forty papers on marine biology will be the keynote speaker at this year's conference.
F. NO CHANGE
G. who has published over forty papers on marine biology,
H. who has published over forty papers on marine biology;
J. who, has published over forty papers on marine biology,
Answer: G. The clause "who has published over forty papers on marine biology" is nonrestrictive: it provides extra information about Dr. Ramirez but is not necessary to identify her. Nonrestrictive clauses must be enclosed by commas on both sides. The sentence already has an opening comma after "Dr. Ramirez," so you need a closing comma after "biology" to complete the pair. A semicolon (H) cannot end a dependent clause, and separating "who" from "has published" with a comma (J) breaks the clause apart.
3. The recipe calls for three ingredients [3] fresh basil, ripe tomatoes, and mozzarella.
A. NO CHANGE
B. : fresh basil, ripe tomatoes, and mozzarella.
C. ; fresh basil, ripe tomatoes, and mozzarella.
D. , fresh basil, ripe tomatoes, and mozzarella.
Answer: B. When an independent clause introduces a list, use a colon. "The recipe calls for three ingredients" is a complete sentence that sets up the list that follows. A colon signals "here is what I mean." A semicolon (C) is wrong because the list is not an independent clause. Leaving no punctuation (A) creates a run-on. A comma (D) is too weak to introduce a formal list after a complete clause.
Grammar and Usage
4. The flavor of the spices used in traditional Moroccan cooking [4] vary depending on the region and the time of year.
F. NO CHANGE
G. varies
H. have varied
J. are varying
Answer: G. The subject is "flavor" (singular), not "spices" or "cooking." The ACT frequently buries the true subject behind prepositional phrases ("of the spices," "in traditional Moroccan cooking") to trick you into matching the verb to a nearby plural noun. Cross out the prepositional phrases mentally: "The flavor... varies." A singular subject takes a singular verb.
5. The gymnast trained harder than [5] any member of her team in the weeks leading up to the state championship.
A. NO CHANGE
B. any other member
C. any other members
D. all members
Answer: B. This tests illogical comparisons. The gymnast is a member of her own team, so saying she trained harder than "any member" would include herself in the comparison, which is illogical. Adding "other" excludes her from the group she is being compared to. This is a subtle but frequent ACT pattern: when someone is compared to a group they belong to, use "any other" for singular comparisons.
6. By the time the rescue team arrived, the river [6] rises nearly three feet above its normal level.
F. NO CHANGE
G. has risen
H. had risen
J. will have risen
Answer: H. The phrase "By the time the rescue team arrived" establishes that one past event (the river rising) happened before another past event (the team arriving). When one action in the past is completed before another action in the past, use the past perfect tense ("had risen"). Present tense (F) and present perfect (G) clash with the past-tense context. Future perfect (J) points the wrong direction in time.
7. The scholarship committee requires that each applicant [7] submits a personal statement along with two letters of recommendation.
A. NO CHANGE
B. submit
C. will submit
D. would submit
Answer: B. After verbs that express demands, requirements, or suggestions (require, insist, recommend, suggest), the clause that follows uses the subjunctive mood: the base form of the verb without "s," regardless of the subject. "The committee requires that each applicant submit" (not "submits"). This rule appears on the ACT specifically to test whether students add an unnecessary "s" to match a singular subject.
Sentence Structure
8. The volunteers not only cleaned the hiking trails [8] but also were planting native wildflowers along the creek bank.
F. NO CHANGE
G. and also planted
H. but also planted
J. but they also did plant
Answer: H. The sentence uses a "not only...but also" construction, which requires parallel structure. The first element is "cleaned" (simple past tense), so the second element must also be simple past: "planted." "Were planting" (F) breaks the parallelism by switching to past progressive. Choice G drops "but" and loses the correlative conjunction pair. When you see "not only," immediately look for "but also" with a matching grammatical form.
9. [9] Walking through the open-air market on a Saturday morning, the smell of fresh bread and roasted coffee filled the narrow streets.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Walking through the open-air market on a Saturday morning, you could smell fresh bread and roasted coffee filling the narrow streets.
C. Walking through the open-air market on a Saturday morning, and the smell of fresh bread and roasted coffee filled the narrow streets.
D. Walking through the open-air market on a Saturday morning fresh bread, and roasted coffee filled the narrow streets.
Answer: B. The original contains a dangling modifier. The introductory phrase "Walking through the open-air market" must describe the subject that immediately follows the comma. In the original, that subject is "the smell," but smells cannot walk. Choice B fixes this by making "you" the subject: a person who can actually walk through a market. Dangling modifiers are one of the ACT's favorite tricks. Always check whether the subject after an introductory participial phrase is logically performing the action.
10. The director of the documentary [10] interviewing survivors of the 1964 earthquake, collecting their stories before they were lost to time.
F. NO CHANGE
G. interviewed survivors of the 1964 earthquake, collecting their stories before they were lost to time.
H. interviewing survivors of the 1964 earthquake and collecting their stories before they were lost to time.
J. by interviewing survivors of the 1964 earthquake, collected their stories before they were lost to time.
Answer: G. The original is a sentence fragment. "The director of the documentary interviewing survivors..." has no finite (main) verb. "Interviewing" is a present participle, not a main verb. Changing it to "interviewed" (simple past) gives the sentence a proper main verb and makes it complete. Choice H keeps the participial form and remains a fragment. Always check: does the sentence have a subject paired with a finite verb?
Production of Writing (Questions 11-16)
Production of Writing questions test your ability to organize ideas, choose effective transitions, and evaluate whether sentences belong in a passage. These questions require you to think about purpose rather than grammar. For strategies on tackling every ACT English question type, see our ACT English prep guide.
11. The first electric streetcars appeared in American cities during the 1880s. [11] Similarly, many cities dismantled their streetcar lines by the 1950s in favor of buses and private automobiles.
A. NO CHANGE
B. However,
C. Therefore,
D. In fact,
Answer: B. The first sentence describes streetcars appearing (a positive development). The second describes them being dismantled (a reversal). The relationship is contrast. "Similarly" (A) signals agreement. "Therefore" (C) signals cause-effect. "In fact" (D) signals reinforcement. Only "However" (B) signals that the second idea contradicts or reverses the first. To solve transition questions, name the relationship between the two sentences before looking at the choices.
12. The following sentences form a paragraph about a community garden project. Where should the underlined sentence be placed for the most logical order?
[A] Volunteers spent the first three weekends clearing debris and testing the soil. [B] Once the beds were built, the group planted tomatoes, peppers, squash, and herbs. [C] They then constructed twelve raised garden beds from donated lumber. [D] By midsummer, the garden was producing enough food to supply a weekly farmers' market stand.
F. Where it is now (after sentence B)
G. Before sentence A
H. After sentence A (before sentence B)
J. After sentence D
Answer: H. The paragraph follows a chronological sequence: clear the land, build beds, plant crops, harvest. The underlined sentence describes building raised beds, which logically comes after clearing debris (sentence A) and before planting (sentence B). The clue is sentence B's opening: "Once the beds were built" presupposes that the building already happened. Placing the construction sentence between A and B restores the logical order. For sentence placement questions, always look for time-sequence clues and pronoun references.
13. The passage below discusses the benefits of reading aloud to young children. The writer is considering adding the following sentence: "My own daughter's favorite book when she was three was Goodnight Moon." Should the writer add this sentence?
A. Yes, because it provides a relatable personal example that supports the passage's argument.
B. Yes, because it identifies a specific book that all parents should read to their children.
C. No, because it introduces a personal anecdote that is not relevant to the passage's evidence-based discussion.
D. No, because it contradicts the passage's claim that reading aloud is beneficial.
Answer: C. When the ACT asks whether to add or delete a sentence, evaluate two things: (1) does it support the paragraph's main idea, and (2) does it match the passage's tone? The passage is an evidence-based discussion, so a personal anecdote about one child's favorite book does not contribute to the argument. Choice A sounds reasonable at first, but a single child's preference is not evidence for the benefits of reading aloud. Always check whether the proposed sentence advances the paragraph's purpose or merely adds a tangent.
14. [1] The Great Barrier Reef stretches more than 1,400 miles along the northeast coast of Australia. [2] It is home to over 1,500 species of fish and 400 types of coral. [3] Rising ocean temperatures have caused widespread coral bleaching events in recent years. [4] [14] Despite these threats, recent conservation efforts have shown promising signs of coral recovery in several key areas.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence [14] in the paragraph?
F. It introduces a new topic unrelated to the rest of the paragraph.
G. It provides a counterpoint that balances the negative information in sentence 3.
H. It restates the main idea expressed in sentence 1.
J. It offers a specific example of a coral bleaching event.
Answer: G. The paragraph moves from description (sentences 1-2) to a problem (sentence 3: bleaching) to a hopeful note (sentence 4: recovery). Sentence 4 starts with "Despite these threats," explicitly signaling a counterpoint to the negative information in sentence 3. It does not introduce a new topic (F), restate sentence 1 (H), or give a specific bleaching example (J). When the ACT asks about a sentence's function, focus on how it relates to the sentences around it.
15. The passage discusses the decline of small-town movie theaters. The writer wants to open the paragraph with a sentence that establishes the topic and engages the reader. Which choice best accomplishes this goal?
A. Movies are a popular form of entertainment in the United States.
B. In 1950, there were approximately 19,000 movie theaters in America; today, fewer than 5,500 remain.
C. Some people prefer watching movies at home on their televisions.
D. The first motion picture was shown to a public audience in 1895.
Answer: B. An effective topic sentence does two things: it introduces the paragraph's subject and makes the reader want to keep reading. Choice B names the specific topic (movie theater decline), provides a striking statistic (19,000 down to 5,500), and creates curiosity about why the decline happened. Choice A is too vague. Choice C shifts to a different topic (home viewing). Choice D is a historical fact that does not connect to the decline theme. On the ACT, the best opening sentence is always the most specific and relevant one.
16. The writer wants to conclude the essay about community gardens by reinforcing the main argument that they strengthen neighborhoods. Which closing sentence best accomplishes this?
F. Community gardens also exist in many countries outside the United States.
G. Gardening can be a relaxing hobby for people who enjoy spending time outdoors.
H. By turning empty lots into gathering places, community gardens give neighborhoods something no policy memo can: a shared sense of purpose.
J. Local governments should consider providing more funding for garden projects in the coming years.
Answer: H. The question asks for a conclusion that reinforces the main argument about strengthening neighborhoods. Choice H directly connects gardens to neighborhood bonds ("shared sense of purpose") and echoes the essay's core theme. Choice F broadens to an international scope that dilutes the focus. Choice G shifts to personal relaxation, not community building. Choice J introduces a new policy suggestion instead of reinforcing what has already been argued. The best closing sentence mirrors the thesis, not a new direction.
Knowledge of Language (Questions 17-20)
Knowledge of Language questions test precision, conciseness, and tone. They ask you to choose the word or phrase that best fits the context. These questions have no grammar error to fix; instead, they ask which option is the most effective.
17. The nonprofit organization [17] utilized a fleet of donated vans to deliver meals to homebound seniors throughout the county.
A. NO CHANGE
B. used
C. made utilization of
D. put to use
Answer: B. "Utilized" and "used" mean the same thing, but "used" is simpler and more direct. The ACT favors plain, clear language over inflated vocabulary. "Utilized" adds a syllable and no additional meaning. "Made utilization of" (C) is even wordier. When two words mean the same thing and one is shorter, the shorter word is almost always the right answer on the ACT.
18. The river's current was [18] incredibly, unbelievably strong after three days of heavy rain, forcing authorities to close several bridges.
F. NO CHANGE
G. really strong
H. powerful
J. strong to an extreme degree
Answer: H. "Incredibly, unbelievably strong" stacks two intensifiers that add emphasis but no precision. "Really strong" (G) is less wordy but still vague. "Strong to an extreme degree" (J) is clunky. "Powerful" is a single precise word that conveys the same meaning more effectively. On Knowledge of Language questions, look for the choice that is specific, concise, and free of filler intensifiers.
19. In a formal research paper about renewable energy policy, which of the following sentences best maintains the appropriate tone?
A. Solar panel costs have totally tanked over the past ten years, which is awesome for consumers.
B. The cost of solar panels has declined by approximately 70% over the past decade, making residential installation increasingly affordable.
C. Solar panels are way cheaper now than they used to be, so more people are getting them.
D. It's pretty wild how much solar panel prices have dropped lately.
Answer: B. A formal research paper requires academic tone: precise language, specific data, and no slang. Choice B provides a concrete statistic ("approximately 70%"), uses formal vocabulary ("declined," "residential installation"), and maintains an objective, measured voice. Choices A, C, and D all use informal language ("totally tanked," "way cheaper," "pretty wild") that clashes with the academic context. On tone questions, match the formality of your answer to the passage's genre.
20. The old lighthouse, [20] which had been built in 1887 and was constructed from local granite and had stood overlooking the harbor for over a century, was finally restored last spring.
F. NO CHANGE
G. built from local granite in 1887,
H. which was constructed out of local granite during the year 1887 and had been standing for many years,
J. having been built in 1887 and made of granite from the local area,
Answer: G. The original is bloated with redundancy. "Had been built" and "was constructed" say the same thing twice. "Had stood overlooking the harbor for over a century" restates what "built in 1887" already implies. Choice G condenses everything into five clean words: "built from local granite in 1887." Choice H and J are still wordier than necessary. When multiple choices are grammatically correct, the ACT almost always rewards the most concise version that preserves all essential information.
Score Your Results
If you scored 17-20, you have a strong command of ACT English fundamentals. If you scored below 14, review the explanations for every question you missed and focus your study on the category where you lost the most points.
Ready for more practice? Try our 25-question skill-by-skill question bank to drill specific grammar rules, or take a full passage-based practice test to simulate real test conditions. For daily adaptive practice with instant scoring, start a free ACT English quiz on Larry Learns.
If you want a complete study plan with book recommendations, check out our best ACT prep books for 2026.
Frequently Asked Questions About ACT English Practice Questions
What types of questions are on the ACT English section?
ACT English questions fall into three categories. Conventions of Standard English (about 53% of questions) tests grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure. Production of Writing (about 30%) tests organization, transitions, and whether content supports the passage's purpose. Knowledge of Language (about 17%) tests word choice, tone, and conciseness. Every question is tied to a passage, not asked in isolation.
How are ACT English practice questions different from real ACT questions?
Practice questions test the same rules and use the same format as real ACT questions: a passage with underlined portions and four answer choices. The main difference is context. On the real test, each passage has 15 questions and you are working under a 45-minute time limit. Practice questions let you focus on learning the rules without time pressure. Once you are comfortable with the rules, switch to timed practice to build speed.
How many ACT English practice questions should I do before test day?
Aim to complete at least 200 to 300 practice questions across all three categories before your test date. That is roughly four to five full practice tests, or about 15 to 20 questions per day over two to three weeks. Quality matters more than quantity, so always review your mistakes and understand the rule behind each wrong answer.
What is the fastest way to improve on ACT English questions?
Focus on the five highest-frequency rules: comma splices, subject-verb agreement, pronoun agreement, redundancy, and transitions. These five rules account for the majority of ACT English questions. Learn each rule, practice 10 to 15 targeted questions per rule, and review your errors. Most students see a 3 to 5 point score increase just by mastering these fundamentals.
Are ACT English questions the same every test?
No, the specific passages and questions change every test date. However, the question types and grammar rules being tested remain consistent. The ACT draws from the same pool of about 20 to 25 grammar and rhetoric concepts. That is why practicing with diverse questions is so valuable: once you learn the underlying rules, you can handle any version of the question the ACT throws at you.
Where can I find more free ACT English practice questions?
Right here on Larry Learns. We offer a 25-question skill-based question bank, a 15-question passage-based practice test, and unlimited adaptive ACT English quizzes with instant scoring and detailed explanations. For an overview of every question type and how to approach it, read our ACT English prep guide.
